Was Jesus Eligible to Asscend The Throne?
A. Inheritance and Adoption
[from Glen Miller--Unraveling Wittgenstiens Net a Chrsitian Think Tank [link]
1) Jesus linage
But the problems for these prophecies run even deeper. Is Jesus actually
of the tribe of Judah, the family line of Jesse, and the house of
David? The sole evidence for this is two sets of genealogies for Jesus,
in Matthew 1:1-17 and Luke 3:23-38.
2) Gosepl geneologies not only source on Jesus' ancesstors
Strictly speaking, this is untrue. There are TONS of references to Jesus
as being in the lineage of David, throughout the NT, and NOT just in
the genealogies.
For examples:
•in Zechariah's Song - Luke 1:69
•The blindman at Jericho - Mt 9:27; Mr 10:47
•The Canaanite Woman (a foreigner!) - Mt 15:22
•The questioning crowd in Mt 12:23
•The massive crowd at the Triumphal Entry - Mt 21:15
•Apostle Peter - Acts 2.25ff
•Apostle Paul - Acts 13.22ff; Romans 1.3; 2 Tim 2.8
•Apostle John - Revelation 5:5; 22.16
3) blood never used as issue by enemies of Jesus
It is worth pointing out that the issue of his Davidic blood was NEVER
raised as an issue by his enemies (for the first several centuries!)--it
was his alleged blasphemy and exorbitant claims that 'brought the house
down'. And even though the general ignorance of Jesus' birth in
Bethlehem was an issue (John 7:42), the local genealogical records were
easily accessible to would-be-antagonists.
So, there really was a wide base of acceptance (on the basis of
evidence) for Jesus' lineage. (For a discussion of the title "Son of
David", see Guthrie, New Testament Introduction, pp254-258.)
4.on the assumption that only blood relations can inherit.
(Glenn Miller's argument from Christian Think Tank)
This assumption is demonstrably false. Let's look at the situation and
background closely. 1.Matthew and Luke present different genealogies of
Jesus--one through David's son Solomon (the royal line) and the other
through David's son Nathan (the non-royal line). The royal line is
traced in Matthew; the "natural" line in Luke. Matthew's genealogy goes
only back to Abraham (to show the Jewish character of the King); Luke's
goes back to Adam (to show the universal aspect of the Savior).
Matthew's emphasizes Jesus' royalty; Luke, his humanity. 2.It is
generally accepted (but not unanimously) that the genealogy in Matthew
belongs to Joseph's family, and the one in Luke applies to Mary's line.
(The historical evidence is fairly strong that both Mary and Joseph were
of the house of David.) 3.Both genealogies are 'aware' of the virgin
birth: Luke adds the phrase "He was the son, SO IT WAS THOUGHT, of
Joseph" (3:23) and Matthew switches verbs from "X begat Y" to "Joseph,
the husband of Mary, of whom (feminine pronoun) was born Jesus".
So, how does Joseph 'step into' Mary's lineage? How does he 'pick up'
her legal heritage? Probably through the law of levirate marriage. The
Jewish folk had numerous provisions for cases of inheritance-transfer in
extreme cases. One of the more frequent situations that had to be
covered (in a land-based, clan-ownership system) was that of childless
marriages, or in some cases, of son-less marriages.
One of the more concise statements of how this would apply here, is by
J. Stafford Wright in Dict. of New Test. Theol., III. 662: "Mary's
father (Heli?) had two daughters, May and the unnamed wife of Zebedee
(John 19:25; Matt 27:56). If there were no sons, Joseph would become son
of Heli on his marriage, to preserve the family name and inheritance
(cf. Num 27:1-11; 36:1-12, esp. v. 8, which accounts for Mary marrying a
man of the family of David.)" [The main passages in the OT that refer
to these various laws are Num 7:1-11; Num 36:1-12; Lev 25:25; Dt
25:5-10. These practices were widespread in the Ancient Near East, and a
good discussion of the details in Israel and differences from the ANE
can be found in Roland de Vaux, Ancient Israel: Vol 1--Social
Institutions. Two famous cases, for good or ill, of these practices are
in the story of Ruth (Book of Ruth) and in the story of Tamar (Gen
38:6ff).
What this 'nets out to' is that Joseph 'married into' Mary's
gene-pool...and hence, the virgin birth doesn't stop the lineage
"transfer".
In other words, the the physical-gene did NOT come FROM JOSEPH was
IRRELEVANT in this case. Legal standing was related to EITHER 'genes' OR
to 'marriage'. (Although it should be pointed out that levirate
arrangements like this required close kinship already, and hence, quite a
number of overlapping genes.).So, strictly speaking, Jesus got his
genes from Mary and his legal standing (in the royal heir line) from
Joseph (thru the marriage of M+J).
5.Now, as a practical matter, I consider the gene-issue to be important,
simply because there were NUMEROUS other indications that the Messiah
WOULD BE from the 'stock of Jesse' etc--images and phrases that DO put
more emphasis on the blood-line that does simply 'legal lineage'--but I
am persuaded that these requirements were adequately satisfied from
Mary's side.
Simpler Solution
that was Glenn Miller's argument. It's pretty good, but there's a
simpler solution. Whe Mary turned up Pregnant, Joseph calimed her as a
wife. Naturally he wouldn't say "she's not really prenant with my child,
it's really form the Holy Spirit!" Whose going to say "O we know you
aren't the father, it's really God!" Now maaybe they suspected it a
human, not Jospeh, but as no one was putting Jesus forward as Messiah at
that point, why would the villagers object to Joseph claiming
fatherhood?
How could they prove, if God really worked a miracle to impregnate Mary,
how could the villagers ever make the case, or even suspect that Joseph
was not the father? So if Jospeh claimed paternity by default, by not
rejecting Mary, then no one would ever question. If that arrangement was
good enough for God it would have have to be good enough for man.
If Jesus wasn't the son of God then he can't be the Messiah anyway. But
in all my debates with anti-missionaries I've never seen them produce
any documentation that an adopted son can't inherit the throne of
Israel.